Patient Care Final

Question Answer
X-rays were discovered in 1895 by: Roentgen
Which of following is NOT an accurate statement regarding characteristics of x-rays?They can't be detected by the human senses.They cause certain crystals to fluoresce.They can be refracted by a lensThey can penetrate matter impenetrable to light. They can be refracted by a lens
An electron cloud surrounding a hot cathode is referred to as a(n): space charge
The purpose of rotating the x-ray tube target is to increase the heat capacity of the anode
An imaginary photon that is emitted from the center of the focal spot, perpendicular to the long axis of the x-ray tube, is called the central ray
A device used to control the size of the radiation field is a collimator
The function of an x-ray grid is to increase radiographic contrast by reducing scatter radiation fog
The majority of radiography education programs today are based in colleges
The container for the vacuum of the x-ray tube is made of glass
The frequency of an electromagnetic sine wave is defined as the number of times per second that a crest passes a given point
Which of the following formulas represents the relationship between the wavelength, frequency, and velocity of an electromagnetic wave? V= ? ? f
An x-ray exposure is made using the following factors: 200 mA, 0.04 seconds, 80 kVp, and 48 inches SID. In this case, which represents the value of the mAs? 8
Which of the following substances is most readily penetrated by x-rays?a. Airb. Fatc. Waterd. Bone Air
Grids or buckys are generally used for body parts that measure greater than: 10 to 12 cm
The access point for the radiographer to determine the exposure factors and to initiate the exposure is called the control console
An x-ray machine designed for direct viewing of the x-ray image is called a(n) fluoroscope
The anode or positive end of the x-ray tube is the end that contains the target
A device located between the x-ray tube and the control panel that increases the voltage delivered from the power company is called a transformer
The inventor of the fluoroscope, who also investigated hundreds of fluorescent materials, was Edison
Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength? X-rays
The inventor of the hot cathode x-ray tube, the prototype of the x-ray tubes of today, was Coolidge
An increase in OID will result in:1. increased magnification.2. decreased image detail.3. increased image detail. 1 and 2
The primary purpose of intensifying screens is to reduce the quantity of radiation required to produce a satisfactory image
The inverse square law states that the radiation intensity is inversely proportional to the square of the: SID
In order to increase optical density of the image, which of the following factors should be increased? mAs
An image receptor that contains a photostimulable plate that is converted to an image by processing with a laser is part of a system called computed radiography (CR)
Radiation exposure is directly proportional to mAs
An image that is black in the darkest areas and white in the lightest areas is said to have high contrast
When a radiographic image is visible immediately after exposure, without the need for processing, the image receptor system is of the type called digital radiography (DR)
When a large OID causes poor image detail, this can be compensated to some degree by increasing the SID
The three principal methods used to protect x-ray equipment operators from unnecessary radiation exposure are:1. time2. distance3. shielding4. intensifying screens 1, 2, and 3 only
What is the effect of grid use on image quality, as compared to an exposure made without a grid? Contrast is increased
Which of the following devices is NOT employed to reduce the hazards of radiation exposure to the patient? Bucky
Which type of distortion is responsible for unequal magnification of various parts of the subject? Shape
Which of the following statements best describes current knowledge regarding the effects of exposure to low doses (less than 20 rad) of ionizing radiation? There is increased risk of cancer, leukemia, birth defects, and cataracts.
What is a rad? A radiation unit used to measure patient dose
What is a rem? A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure
What is meant by R? A radiation unit that is determined by measuring ionization of air
What is meant by WF? A factor that quantifies the relative health risks of various types
To decrease the contrast on a radiographic image, you should increase the kVp
What is a Sv? A radiation unit used to measure dose equivalents for occupational exposure
What is a Gy? A radiation unit used to measure patient dose
According to the Laws of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which of the following statements is true? Young cells are more sensitive to radiation injury than older cells.
Which of the following statements is NOT true with respect to nonstochastic radiation effects? They occur randomly with respect to individuals
Which of the following is NOT a potential latent effect of a low radiation dose? Erythema
__________ is a radiation detector found in an OSL dosimeter Aluminum oxide
Stochastic radiation effects are difficult to identify and measure because:1. they are relatively rare.2. they can occur in the absence of radiation exposure.3. there is a long time lapse between exposure and effect. 1, 2, and 3
The ALARA principle states that occupational radiation exposure should be limited to levels that are as low as reasonably achievable
One Gy of radiation dose is equal to which of the following doses in Traditional (British) Units? 100 rad
Safety precautions for a pregnant radiographer should include 1 and 2 only
An order that reads "DNR/DNI" means Do Not Resuscitate/Do Not Intubate
Ageism is a term that refers to discrimination against people because of age
When dealing with preschool children, it is important to keep directions simple, direct, and honest
Which of the following is the correct statement for a radiographer that has an infant patient? The radiographer may immobilize the infant during an exam if it is necessary.
Which of the following offers a valid choice?a. Would you like to use the restroom before we begin?b. What is your doctor’s name?c. Please hold your breath.d. Would you mind lying down on this table? Would you like to use the restroom before we begin?
When a patient becomes hostile and threatening, which of the following strategies is NOT appropriate? Say loudly, “Stop this now or I’ll call the police.”
An attitude that involves hostility or anger is termed aggressiveness
The generational group most likely to accept the word of healthcare professionals without question is those over age 75
Belief in the ancient superstition of the mal ojo, or “evil eye,” is most likely to be encountered in individuals whose ethnic background is Hispanic
An electrolarynx is a device that assists communication for some who have inability to speak normally
When a patient does not respond to noises or words spoken out of the range of vision, uses lip movements without making a sound, or speaks in a flat monotone, it is quite likely that the patient is deaf.
Which are good strategies for effective comms in stressful situation?1 Lower voice speak slowly/ clearly.2 Nonjudgmental comms.3 Don't allow upset indiv acts/ speech to elicit response.4 If uncertain the listener understood, request answer. 1, 2, 3, and 4
When you must touch a patient, you are less likely to unintentionally offend if you:1. tell the patient in advance what you are about to do.2. use a firm, appropriate touch.3. have a professional purpose that is clear to the patient. 1, 2, and 3
Communication with coworkers is NOT improved when using which of the following strategies? Share gossip and complaints.
When a patient has impaired hearing, which of the following strategies is LEAST likely to be helpful? Shout loudly with your lips close to the patient’s ear
The onset of chronic conditions is more common during which of the following life stages? Middle adult
The principle of providing healthcare services with full respect for the dignity of humankind is included in the ASRT Code of Ethics
When confidential patient information is to be transmitted by fax, it should be preceded by a phone call to the recipient.
An Asian female patient has arrived in your department. As you greet the patient, she immediatley states that her husband would be needed for any decisions and does not have direct eye contact with you. I am aware that my patient may observe practices that are associated with a specific cultural group and do not make assumptions of verbal and nonverbal behavior.
The Joint Commission requires that healthcare personnel use __________ patient identifiers to validate identity before proceeding with patient care or services. two
Which of the following statements is true with regard to comatose patients? They may hear and comprehend while apparently unconscious.
Patients that have aphasia may experience difficulty with speaking
Which of the following statements regarding nonverbal communication is NOT true? Nonverbal behaviors have the same interpretations in all cultures.
The first phase of experience in the grieving process is usually the stage of: denial.
Which of the following is an example of appropriate assertiveness by a radiographer? Please come now. I need help with this case.
The three principal methods used to protect x-ray equipment operators from unnecessary radiation exposure are time, distance, and shielding
When a qualified interpreter is used for non-English-speaking patients, the interpreter will translate only what is said by and to the patient.
When family members make angry and persistent demands on the staff, this is most likely the result of fear over the condition of their relative
When communication has been validated, this means that the speaker has: received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension
Which of the following is the most effective way to meet legal requirements when obtaining informed consent from a patient who does not speak English? Obtain a qualified interpreter
Incident reports should be completed for any fall, accident, or occurrence that results in injury involving:1. patients.2. visitors.3. members of hospital staff 1, 2, and 3
The failure to use reasonable care or caution in the context of a professional relationship is termed: malpractice
The offense of producing written material that causes defamation of character or loss of reputation is referred to legally as libel
In legal matters, the person called the plaintiff is: the one who brings a civil law suit
A widely accepted ethical standard for selecting and defending solutions to ethical dilemmas in healthcare communities uses six moral principles as guides to right action. This standard is called principle-based ethics
A four-step process for evaluating situations where the correct action is in question so that one can act appropriately and defend one’s actions is called ethical analysis
Mandatory, specific, and enforceable standards of minimally acceptable professional conduct for all registered technologists are called the Rules of Ethics
A negative and destructive response to the chronic strain of dealing with the demands and problems of others that is characterized by exhaustion, dissatisfaction, anxiety, and eventually apathy, is called burnout
A law enacted under the U.S. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) to protect the privacy rights of patients is called the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
The mapping and identification of the human genetic code was completed in the year 2000 by the Human Genome Project
Res ipsa loquitur means “the thing speaks for itself.”
A moral agent is the person responsible for implementing an ethical decision
A tort is a(n) civil wrong
Violations of state radiation control regulations, such as practicing outside the legal scope of practice, are usually classified as misdemeanors
Which of the following is not necessarily an element of a malpractice charge? The patient consented to the care.
If a radiographer attempts to gain a patient’s cooperation by threatening harm, this offense is termed assault
If a patient refuses examination and wishes to leave, but is not allowed to do so, the radiographer who restrains the patient may be liable for charges of false imprisonment.
The term ethics refers to moral principles or values
When a hospital radiographer innocently commits an error as the result of following the orders of an attending physician, the physician may be held responsible according to the doctrine of borrowed servant
Which of the following is NOT included as part of the seven Cs of malpractice prevention? Confidence
Which of the following does NOT represent a responsibility of the radiographer? Providing patients with complete and accurate information regarding diagnosis and treatment
Your friend is scheduled to have an arteriogram and is concerned about the safety of this procedure. She asks for your opinion. You should encourage her to discuss her questions with her physician
Which of the following statements about informed consent is NOT true? Signed forms may be filled in after the procedure is completed.
If you observe unethical or unprofessional conduct during the course of your work, you should first report your observations to your immediate supervisor
A charge of battery may result if a patient is slapped.
The next logical step for an able and experienced radiographer to take without acquiring additional education, degrees, or certification when moving up the career ladder would likely be lead technologist
The Practice Standards for Medical Imaging and Radiation Therapy defines all of the following EXCEPT:a. professional responsibilities.b. monetary compensation.c. technical activities.d. clinical practice. monetary compensation
If a radiographer observes another technologist acting inappropriately with a patient, who should he or she report this behavior to? The lead radiographer/manager
Which Medicare plan is responsible for providing hospital coverage? Medicare Part A
The purpose of the RadCARE bill is to ensure the public is protected from inadequately trained workers
The role of the hospital in relation to the community it serves is reflected in its mission statement
What allows the radiographer to control the size of the radiation field? Collimator
The organization that establishes minimum standards for certification in various imaging specialties and radiation therapy, conducts qualifying examinations, and certifies those who pass, is called ARRT
A profession might be thought of as an organized occupational group that applies specialized knowledge to benefit others.
A physician specialist in medical imaging who interprets diagnostic images and provides reports to referring physicians is called a(n) radiologist
The federal health insurance program in the United States that covers a portion of the medical care costs for those over age 65 is called Medicare
A proprietary hospital is one that is a business run for profit
A health maintenance organization provides preventive healthcare and other needed health services.
In a hospital, the term medical staff refers to all physicians who are privileged to treat patients in the facility.
A professional organization for radiographers and all radiologic technologists is ASRT
Formal education beyond the minimum needed to practice radiography is NOT usually required to obtain a position as a lead technologist
Which of the following organizations provides accreditation for healthcare institutions? TJC
Which of the following hospital departments provides support services? Purchasing
An approach to healthcare in which the client seeks help only when unable to manage alone is called a(n) _______________approach. crisis intervention
A physician who specializes in tumor identification and treatment is called a(n) oncologist
Fire marshals state that common infractions of fire safety rules in hospitals involve:1. improper storage of flammables.2. fire doors blocked open.3. unapproved extension cords.4. storing equipment in corridors. 1, 2, 3, and 4
If there is a fire in your immediate area, the FIRST thing you should do is evacuate the area
If you smell smoke and smoldering insulation in the area of an x-ray control panel, the first thing you should do is turn off the main power switch
When a fire extinguisher is needed, you should:1. pull the pin and squeeze the handle.2. aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.3. aim steadily where the fire appears hottest.4. use a sweeping motion from side to side . 1, 2, and 4 only
When a hazardous spill occurs, your first duty is to limit access to the area
The acronym PASS is a helpful way to remember the steps for using a fire extinguisher.
Which of the following items are NOT an essential part of a “spill kit”? Rags and sponges
The most common cause of back strain is bending and twisting while lifting
Which of the following statements does NOT apply to the Rules of Body Mechanics? Keep your load out beyond the front of your body.
The acronym RACE stands for Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Evacuate.
The acronym RACE is a helpful way to remember the steps to follow in the event of a fire
What type(s) of musculoskeletal disorder(s) is/are more likely to occur in technologists who perform computerized modalities?1. RMIs2. RSIs3. CTDs4. Vision problems 1, 2, 3, and 4
In the language of body mechanics, the center of gravity refers to the point around which body weight is balanced
Electrical equipment used on or near patients must be:1. approved for hospital use.2. have grounded plugs.3. inspected regularly and repaired if needed 1, 2, and 3
The 2011 National Patient Safety Goals include:1. using at least two ways to identify patients.2. improving staff communication.3. using hand hygiene guidelines from the Centers for Disease Control. 1, 2, and 3
Because oxygen supports combustion, the safety rules regarding oxygen use state that there should be no:1. smoking.2. ungrounded appliances.3. candles or other open flames. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are NOT microorganisms? Fomites
Which of the following are involved in the body’s first line of defense against infection?1. Intact skin and mucous membranes2. Upper respiratory tract cilia3. Inflammatory response 1 and 2 only
These microorganisms occur as yeasts or molds and can infect the skin, nail beds, and scalp. Fungi
Which of the following is involved in the cycle of infection?1. Pathogen2. Mode of transmission3. Susceptible host 1, 2, and 3
The portal of entry describes the method by which the pathogen enters the body.
Subcellular organisms that are among the smallest known disease-causing microorganisms are called viruses
Which microorganisms are classified according to their shape and a staining process? Bacteria
Which type of immunity occurs because the body is able to distinguish itself from foreign protein substances that enter the body? Acquired
The portal of exit describes the: method by which the pathogen exits the body.
Droplet, airborne, contact, and vectors are involved in the spread of disease. Which factor of the cycle of infection is most closely associated from the preceeding statement? Means of transmission
Single-celled animals that are classified according to whether or not they are motile are called protozoa
Properties of pathogens that distinguish them from normal flora are called virulence factors
Any warm, moist place, such as the human body, where microorganisms can grow and reproduce is called a: reservoir of infection
When an infection causes the body to produce an inflammatory response, white blood cells engulf microorganisms in a process called phagocytosis
Infections acquired in hospitals that affect patients are known as Nosocomial infections
One type of microorganism is very difficult to treat medically because there are few effective medications and those are effective for only a limited number of organisms. This statement refers to viruses
Some pathogens live inside healthy individuals without apparent disease. "Typhoid Mary" illustrates an example of a: carrier
Immunity that is passed from mother to child in the mother’s milk is passive immunity.
Malaria, bubonic plague, Lyme disease, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever are examples of diseases that are spread by vectors
Nosocomial infections are those that are contracted: within a hospital
Which of the following statements does NOT meet infection control guidelines with regard to the handling of patient linens? Soiled linens should be shaken to remove loose material before being placed in the hamper.
The practice of separating infectious patients from others and carefully controlling items that come in contact with these patients is called isolation technique
Under the system of protective precautions, the radiographer who handles the x-ray unit for a compromised patient drops the image receptor into a clean or sterile cover.
A patient diagnosed with a contagious respiratory infection is being transported to the radiology department. Which of the following must be done to prevent transmission of the patient’s infection? The patient must wear a mask
Precautions for the compromised patient may include:1. cleaning equipment before entering room.2. hand hygiene before entering the room.3. the use of masks, gowns, and sometimes gloves 1, 2, and 3
When taking a radiograph of a patient with a contagious disease, the “dirty” radiographer 1 and 2 only
Reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual is called medical asepsis
A patient placed under airborne precautions requires a bedside chest radiograph. The radiographer must follow standard precautions and must don a particulate respirator.
According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention, an inexpensive environmental surface germicide that is effective against HIV is a solution of 1 part sodium hypochlorite (bleach) to 10 parts water
Which of the following describes the proper procedure for disposal of a safety needle and syringe following use? Retract needle, do not remove from syringe, and dispose of syringe in a sharps container.
When does the CDC recommend handwashing in place of the use of alcohol based hand rubs? When hands are visibly soiled following patient contact
Hand hygiene refers to decontamination of the hands using:1. soap and water.2. alcohol-based hand rubs.3. an antiseptic hand wash. 1, 2, or 3
The infection control department within the hospital is responsible for keeping track of infections and developing infection control policies to protect you, other staff, and patients, based on recommendations from CDC
Which set of transmission-based precautions is used for patients with multidrug resistant wound infections? Contact precautions
The four prime factors of radiographic exposure are exposure time, milliamperage, source-image distance, and kilovoltage
W.C. Roentgen discovered x-rays in Germany while experimenting with a Crookes tube in 1895
When you are scheduled for lunch and you have not completed a procedure, the best course of action is to postpone your meal until the procedure is completed
When a physician orders NPO for a patient, this means that: nothing is to be given by mouth.
A conscious patient whose hands are moist and trembling is most likely suffering from anxiety
Joan Gordon, 72, has dentures, glasses, and a hearing aid. You should place them in a container in the x-ray room and inform her of their location
Fear and anxiety cause many patients to suffer from a dry mouth. When a patient complains of thirst, you should: check the chart before offering anything.
When a patient needs to void during an examination in the imaging department: the chart should be checked to see if qualitative or quantitative specimens are needed.
Mark Novak is an ambulatory inpatient who needs to urinate while in the imaging department. His chart states that a urine specimen is needed. You should: provide supplies and instructions for obtaining a clean catch midstream specimen.
A body position in which the patient is lying on his or her back with the head and upper body elevated is called the Fowler position
Patients who suffer from orthopnea need to have their heads elevated in order to breathe
The term recumbent refers to a position in which the patient is lying down
To avoid possibility of decubitus ulcer the radiographer should:1. ensure patient’s skin stays clean/ dry.2. avoid bumps3. provide padding under bony prominences.4. leave the patient in the same position for the duration of the examination. 1, 2, and 3 only
A patient suffering from severe abdominal pain will be most comfortable when:1. the head is elevated.2. a bolster is placed under the knees.3. the head is lower than the feet.4. the head is flat and in alignment with the body 1 and 2 only
The Pigg-O-Stat is used to immobilize infants for: upright chest radiography
When an elderly female outpatient has bruises, abrasions, and decubitus ulcers, you should report suspected elder abuse to your supervisor while the patient is still present
Which of the following observations should cause you to suspect child abuse?1. Cigarette burn marks2. Bruises shaped like hands, fingers, or objects, such as a belt3. Failure to seek prompt treatment for a serious injury4. Fracture of the radius 1, 2, and 3 only
You have drained urinary collection bag, what remains to be completed?1. Measure the urine and empty the measuring container.2. Remove your gloves and perform hand hygiene.3. Chart the amount of urine.4. Reinsert the catheter into the patient. 1, 2, and 3 only
A position in which the patient is lying flat on his or her stomach is termed prone
A position in which the patient is on his or her back with the head lower than the feet is termed Trendelenburg.
Body temperatures vary during the day and usually are lowest: in the morning
The term diaphoretic means sweating
When checking a patient for signs of cyanosis, the radiographer should note the coloration of the lips and nail beds
Which of the following statements is true with respect to taking a medical history for a radiographic examination? It includes pertinent information about the patient and indicates the reason for the examination
Which of the following routes and methods is rarely used to monitor the body temperature of an adult patient? A disposable thermometer applied to the forehead
An instrument that measures heart rate and oxygen saturation of hemoglobin is called a(n pulse oximeter
Which of the following devices is no longer used in hospitals to monitor body temperature? Mercury glass thermometer
You should not use your thumb to take a pulse because: the pulse in your thumb may be felt instead of the patient’s pulse.
Rectal temperatures may be contraindicated because: the procedure may stimulate the vagus nerve.
Tom Borg, 23, is very anxious about being subjected to radiation from x-rays and complains his hands and feet are tingling he feels dizzy. His temperature 99° F, pulse rate 86 bpm, and respiratory rate 40 bpm. The most likely reason for his symptoms is: hyperventilation
Which of the following statements is true with respect to electrocardiograms? They are frequently used to monitor patients over time, measuring the electrical activity of the heart.
In electrocardiography, PVC stands for premature ventricular contraction
It is important for radiographers to develop and use patient assessment skills so that they can meet patient needs and set priorities.
A normal oxygen saturation value is represented by which of the following percentages? 95-100%
When is it not advisable to take a temperature orally?1. When the patient has had a hot or cold beverage2 When the patient is receiving oxygen3. When the patient is breathing through the mouth 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following sites should be used to monitor an irregular or slow pulse? Apex of the heart – apical pulse
Which of the following laboratory values is the best indicator of kidney function? Creatinine
What type of question should you ask the patient to begin a patient history? Open-ended
Which of the following blood pressure readings would be categorized as stage 1 hypertension?a. 140/90b. 115/75c. 120/80d. 160/100 140/90
Which of the folowing are blood clotting laboratory assessments:1. BUN2. PT3. PTT4. D-Dimer 2, 3, and 4
When a patient is experiencing tachypnea, the patient is breathing more than 20 breaths/minute
Which value is normal for a serum creatinine in an adult?a. 1.0 mg/dlb. 1.8 mg/dlc. 2.1 mg/dld. .3 mg/dl 1.0 mg/dl
The QRS complex represents: ventricular contraction
The first step you should follow in assisting a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table is to position the wheelchair parallel to the table and lock the brakes
In a slide board transfer, the patient is helped to slide on a draw sheet across the board to another surface.
Use of side rails on stretchers is required:1. when transporting children.2. when restraints are ordered.3. when patients are uncooperative or unconscious. 1, 2, and 3
Checking transportation equipment for safety is the responsibility of the person transporting the patient
When a patient experiences high bilirubin levels, the sclera of the eyes and the skin may appear? yellow
Which of the following is the best method of transportation to the imaging department for a toddler who is an inpatient? The safest and most convenient method is to transport the child in a crib.
When positioning or transporting a patient who has undergone hip replacement via the anterior surgical approach, which of the following movements is usually well tolerated? Flexion to no more than 90 degrees
A patient weighing 260 pounds arrives from an intermediate care facility via wheelchair for an examination of the hip. He is unable to bear weight on either leg. The most appropriate method for placing this patient on the x-ray table is to call for a hydraulic lift and personnel who are experienced in its use
When a patient who has not stood or walked since an accident, stroke, or surgery must be taken to the imaging department, the best method is to use a stretcher
In preparation for a patient transfer to the imaging department, the radiographer should:1. check with nursing service.2. check the patient’s chart.3. assess the patient.4. check patient identification. 1, 2, 3, and 4
A brief, mild reduction in the oxygen supply to the brain occurring with changes in body position that may cause the patient to feel faint is called orthostatic hypotension.
When transferring a stroke patient from the wheelchair to the x-ray table, you should: position the patient's strong side adjacent to the table and ask the patient to lead with the strong leg.
A gait belt is used to: assist a weak patient to stand and walk
Which of the listed items is NOT used to facilitate stretcher transfers? Side rail
The most common type of fall associated with wheelchair transfer occurs when: the patient backs into the wheelchair to sit down and misses the edge of the seat.
When assisting a stroke patient to walk, you should place yourself: on the patient’s weak side
When assisting a patient from bed to wheelchair, you should:1. elevate head of bed.2. lower the bed as far as possible.3. use the face-to-face assist to help them stand.4. assist the patient to pivot with back to wheelchair before sitting down. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Patients who have back injuries are more comfortable moving to a supine position from a lateral recumbent position.
Before helping a patient rise from a wheelchair, you should:1. position the wheelchair in a convenient place.2. set the brakes.3. remove the lap cover.4. move the foot and leg rests out of the way 1, 2, 3, and 4
A variation in the size or shape of the image in comparison to the object it represents is called: Distortion
Short-term, predictable radiation effects typically occur as a result of high doses of radiation exposure, such as those received in radiation therapy
Which of the following types of medication may cause respiratory depression? Opiates and opioids
Drugs given before surgery and certain diagnostic procedures for the purpose of suppressing secretions belong to the category known as: anticholinergics
The role of the radiographer in medication administration involves preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.
Generic medications are usually: the same as, but less expensive than, proprietary medications
The term pharmacokinetics refers to the study of the physiological movement of medications
Toxic effects of medication can occur when the drug accumulates in the body due to:1. overdose.2. impaired elimination.3. advanced age. 1, 2, and 3
Controlled substances include drugs with a high abuse potential
The effects of central nervous system depressants may be monitored by . an electroencephalograph
The term excretion refers to the elimination of drugs from the body after they have been metabolized
Which type of medication may be prescribed before the injection of contrast media to help reduce an allergic response? Corticosteroids
Which gauge needle has the larger bore? a. 24-guage needleb. 22-guage needlec. 20-guage needled. 16-guage needle 16-guage needle
Flumazenil (Romazicon) and naloxone (Narcan) are prescribed to reverse the sedation of other drugs
With respect to a medication, the term potent means powerful
A common rule of thumb is to read the medication label Three times prior to administration
Insulin, tolbutamide (Orinase), chlorpropamide (Diabinase), rosiglitazone (Avandia), and metformin (Glucophage) are examples of hypoglycemic agents
A medication characterized by efficacy is: effective
A drug that acts by attaching to receptors on a cell, much like a key in a lock, is called an agonist
The propietary or brand name of a drug is also referred to as trade name
Which of the following is/are pharmacokinetic processes of medications?1. Distribution2. Metabolism3. Excretion4. Absorption 1, 2, 3, and 4
Metabolism is the process that occurs primarily in the ______________by which the body transofrms drugs into an inactive form that will be excreted from the body. liver
When a patient overreacts or underreacts to a medication or has an unexpected response, the effect is considered to be: idiosyncratic
Which medication effect is poisonous and potentially lethal? toxic
When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because of other medication he/she is taking, the effect is considered to be synergistic
Which of the following drugs is/are considered controlled substances under the Harrison act?1. Morphine2. Cocaine3. Marijuana4. LSD 1, 2, 3, and 4
A drug usually takes effect most rapidly when administered intravenously
Administering nitroglycerine under the patient's tongue is an example of sublingual administration
A common site for blood draws and emergency IV injections is the median cubital vein
The proper height for an IV bottle or bag is: 18 to 20 inches above the vein
Failure to apply pressure to the vein after discontinuing an IV can result in Hematoma
Which of the following sites is preferred when giving IM injections to children? The vastus lateralis muscle of the lateral thigh
A medication often prescribed for self-administration by patients who suffer from angina pectoris and taken by sublingual route nitroglycerine
If extravasation occurs during IV infusion, you should remove the needle or catheter, apply pressure, and then apply cold packs to the site.
"Use of fraud or deceit to obtain employment or credentials" can be found in: Rules of Ethics published by ARRT
An infusion is a slow delivery of medication by means of gravity flow into: a vein
Direct placement of the medication into the digestive tract, orally, rectally, or via nasogastric tube, is referred to as the ______________route of administration. enteral
The application of medication to the surface of the skin is referred to as the ___________ route of administration topical
A “skin test,” such as a test for tuberculosis, which is administered to an area on the anterior forearm, is an example of the _________________ route of medication administration. intradermal
Injection of a contrast medium into the subarachnoid space for a myelogram is an example of the ___________________ route of medication administration intrathecal
When charting the administration of a medication, the record must include1. the date and time of administration.2. the name of the medication.3. the strength of the medication.4. the route of administration. 1, 2, 3, and 4
Epistaxis is another term for Nosebleed
When possible, trauma patients with massive life-threatening conditions will be treated at a Level I trauma center
Research has proven that victims of massive trauma who survive the initial injury have a greater chance of recovery if their condition can be stabilized within the “golden” period, which refers to the first hour
Which of the following are accepted methods for administering oxygen?1. Mask2. Nasal prongs3. Ventilator4. Tent 1, 2, 3, and 4
When a patient is unable to cope with secretions or emesis because of a low level of consciousness, the emergency treatment most likely needed is suction
A serious, unexpected event that demands immediate attention is correctly termed a(n) emergency
The three greatest risks to survival that determine priority in a trauma unit are paralysis, cardiac arrest, and respiratory arrest
The radiographic protocols for trauma units usually state that which of the following radiographs should be taken on all trauma patients? Chest, pelvis, and lateral cervical spine images
An x-ray order designated STAT indicates that the patient’s well-being may be jeopardized by delay in implementing the order
A large area, such as a lobby, used in the event of a disaster for the process of identifying the victims, performing initial examinations, and assigning priorities for further care is called a triage station.
A multidrawered cabinet on wheels that contains medications, supplies, and equipment needed in the event of a cardiac arrest is called a(n): emergency cart
The most common cause of death for individuals under 40 years of age in the United States is trauma
A noninvasive treatment that is appropriate for any patient who experiences acute anxiety accompanied by a rapid heart rate and shortness of breath is a low rate of oxygen administration
An oxygen mask that has an attached reservoir bag that fills with 100% oxygen and a valve to prevent exhaled gas from being inhaled again is called a: nonrebreathing mask.
The type of oxygen mask most appropriate for a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, such as emphysema, is a Veturi Mask
The process of placing an artificial airway through the mouth or nose and into the trachea is commonly called intubation
An emergency drug that is a vasoconstrictor, increases cardiac output, raises blood pressure, and relaxes bronchioles is: epinephrine
Xylocaine (Lidocaine) is a drug found on the emergency code cart that can be used for treating cardiac emergencies because it is a(n) antidysrhythmic
Before suctioning patient, it's important to check suction system for? a Pump is working/ clean receptacle connected to pumpb Adequate length of tubing connects suction catheter to receptaclec Multiple disposable catheters availabled All of above all of above
When patients who suffer from a chronic lung disease, such as emphysema, experience respiratory distress, they should receive a low flow rate of oxygen (2 L/min or less)
Lack of effective circulation to the central nervous system can cause irreparable brain damage in 3 to 5 minutes
The vital sign that most accurately indicates the condition of shock is the blood pressure
Shock resulting from the excessive loss of blood or plasma is called hypovolemic shock
A patient who suddenly demonstrates nervous irritability, cold clammy skin, weakness, hunger, and blurred vision requires the administration of glucose
A sensation of pain/ discomfort in the chest occurs when coronary arteries are unable to supply heart with sufficient oxygen. May be precipitated by exertion/ stress. Usually relieved by rest/ sublingual admin of nitroglycerin. This condition is called angina pectoris
The safest posture for maintaining the airway of an unconscious patient who is vomiting is the lateral recumbent position
A dizzy sensation that feels as if the room is spinning and that often causes nausea may be reported by patients who suffer from inner ear disturbances
Which of the following actions is NOT appropriate when caring for a patient who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure? Restrain movement as much as possible.
A fracture that results in crushing of the bone into many small fragments is called a comminuted fracture
Patients with massive trauma are transported on a backboard and are not removed from it until spinal fracture has been ruled out
Which of the following is NOT a sign of shock? a. Restlessness and a sense of apprehensionb. Hypertensionc. Pallor accompanied by weakness or a change in thinking abilityd. Increased pulse rate Hypertension
In small children or infants, a foreign body obstruction of the airway should be suspected if there is a sudden onset of:1. severe coughing.2 stridor. Either 1 or 2
If a patient complains of sudden, intense chest pain, often described as a crushing pain, you should assume, until proven otherwise, that the patient is having a(n) heart attack
A minimal amount of brain damage, characterized by “seeing stars” or very brief loss of consciousness, is called a concussion
An acute attack of asthma or other reactive airway disease may be treated by the administration of oxygen and a bronchodilating medication
A common term for myocardial infarction is heart attack
The purpose of the Glasgow Coma Scale is to objectively assess changes in a patient’s LOC over time
If a patient without a history of vertigo experiences a sudden onset, it could be an indication of:1. a transient ischemic attack.2. a cerebrovascular accident.3. a drug interaction. 1, 2, and 3
A patient who suddenly demonstrates increased thirst, increased urinary output, decreased appetite, nausea, weakness, confusion, and coma requires the administration of Insulin
A diabetic patient who has taken insulin but no food may experience hypoglycemia
When taking radiographs on a trauma patient, you should be especially alert for signs of shock
The following are important during px’s seizure EXCEPT: a. contractions progressed from one area to another.b. whether the patient hit anyone during the seizure.c. if both sides of the body were involved.d. when the seizure began and ended. whether the patient hit anyone during the seizure.
A numeric system developed to evaluate the changing status of coma patients that can be used by a variety of healthcare workers is called the: Glasgow Coma Scale.
An AED has the ability to do all of the following EXCEPT: a. deliver a shock.b. identify ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation.c. analyze a cardiac rhythm.d. remind staff to not touch the patient. remind staff to not touch the patient.
A defibrillator stimulates the heart to contract effectively by delivering an electrical shock
The purpose of using contrast media in gastrointestinal studies is to enhance visualization of the soft tissues of the alimentary canal.
Barium enema administration may differ from cleansing enema administration with respect to:1. the height of the enema bag.2. the amount of liquid used.3. the size of the catheter. 1, 2, and 3
Patients who require priority scheduling for studies that require fasting are:1. emergencies.2. diabetic patients.3. infants and small children.4. geriatric patients. 1, 2, 3, and 4
A cathartic is a laxative
When administering a cleansing enema, the patient should be placed in the Sims position
The substance used to provide radiographic contrast in the gastrointestinal tract of patients who may have a perforation of the alimentary canal is water-soluble iodine compound
The substance most commonly used to provide radiographic contrast in the gastrointestinal tract is barium sulfate.
The media usually used for double-contrast studies of the colon are barium sulfate and air.
When preparing a barium enema for a patient with Hirschsprung’s disease, the barium should be mixed with Normal Saline
Preparation for an upper gastrointestinal examination usually requires fasting
A black, tarry substance in the stool is an indication of bleeding from the upper gastrointestinal tract.
As a result of its hygroscopic nature, the oral or rectal administration of barium sulfate poses a risk of: barium impaction.
Barium peritonitis is a serious condition that results from perforation of the colon during barium enema
What drug is sometimes administered to relax the stomach and duodenum during a double-contrast upper GI series? Glucagon
If the patient feels “full” after the administration of 150 ml of a cleansing enema solution, you should top the flow temporarily and allow the patient to change position
Bowel obstruction is a serious condition that may result from barium impaction
An enlarged rectal vein is called a hemorrhoid
When an upper GI series is delayed because the stomach does not empty due to pylorospasm, it is often helpful to have the patient lie in the _____________ position. right anterior oblique
An examination performed specifically for the detection of lesions in the duodenum distal to the duodenal bulb and for the diagnosis of pancreatic disease is hypotonic duodenography
Which of the following conditions cause(s) weakening and inflammation of the colon?1. Ulcerative colitis2. Diverticulitis3. Hemorrhoids4. Hiatal hernia 1 and 2 only
Which of the following liquids is NOT appropriate for patients on a liquid diet in preparation for a colon examination? milk
There are five principal types of cathartics: bulk, lubricant, emollient, saline, and stimulant. Of these, the two types that are commonly used in preparation for imaging studies of the gastrointestinal tract are saline and stimulant.
Bisacodyl (Dulcolax) is an example of which type of cathartic? Stimulant
A semisolid nugget of medication that is inserted into the rectum to stimulate peristaltic action in the colon and promote evacuation of the distal portion of the lower bowel is called a(n) suppository
Tap water used for a cleansing enema should be tepid (105° F).
Treatment used to make an item germ-free is called sterilization
A method of sterilization that has special indicators to change color, signifying that sterilization has been achieved, is:1. autoclaving (steam sterilization).2. conventional gas sterilization.3. gas plasma technology. 1, 2, and 3
When opening a sterile pack, the first corner of the wrap is opened away from you
Sterilization is essential to surgical asepsis
Which of the following methods of sterilization is a safer method of sterilizing heat- and moisture-sensitive items in hospitals? Gas plasma technology
Packages are considered sterile if they meet the following criteria:1. The expiration date has not been exceeded.2. The sterility indicators have changed to a predetermined color.3. The package is clean and dry. 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following items will NOT be needed if you are going to perform a presurgical skin preparation? Sterile gown
Which of the following is an acceptable alternative to a surgical hand scrub? Surgical hand rub
Sterile technique is necessary when:1. removing a surgical dressing.2. applying a surgical dressing. 2 only
Which of the following sterilization methods is most practical in the hospital setting for items that can withstand heat and moisture? autoclaving
When donning sterile gloves using the open gloving technique you should grasp the first glove by the fold and the second glove by inserting your fingers under the cuff.
After removing a dressing, you should dispose of it by:1. sealing it in a plastic bag.2. dropping it into the trash.3. dropping it into a biohazard container. Both 1 and 3
When gloving by the closed gloving method, the gloves are put on: after donning the sterile gown.
Which of the listed sterilization methods requires that items be aerated before they can be dispensed for use? Conventional gas sterilization
A topical antiseptic solution, such as Betadine, is used to perform which of the listed procedures? Skin preparation for a sterile injection
Which of the following procedures requires an assistant? Sterile gowning
Instruments with long, narrow lumina must be sterilized using which method? Freon and ethylene oxide
When items inside tubes, ointments, and powders must be sterilized, the best method dry heat
False imprisonment is defined as unjustifiable detention of a person against his and/or her will.
What is the study of the human body in relation to the working environment? Ergonomics
Any electrical equipment that could cause a spark must not be used in the presence of Oxygen
Contrast media used for examinations of the urinary tract and the vascular system are various forms of water-soluble iodine compounds
Which of the following conditions is LEAST likely to be an adverse reaction to the intravenous injection of aqueous iodinated contrast media? hypertension
Which of the following listings is the most reliable predictor of risk of allergic response to contrast media? Allergy history
Which of the following data will the radiologist need prior to injection of a contrast medium for an excretory urogram?1. Allergy history2. Baseline blood pressure3. BUN and creatinine levels 1, 2, and 3
A procedure in which a thin needle is inserted directly into the common bile duct is called percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography.
When a T-tube is properly placed, the cross-bar of the T rests in the:1. hepatic duct.2. common bile duct.3. cystic duct. 1 and 2 only
For approximately 8 hours following myelography, the patient is placed supine with the head elevated
Low-osmolar contrast agents, as compared to high-osmolar agents, are:1. more toxic.2. less likely to initiate an allergic response.3. more likely to cause nausea. 2 only
ERCP stands for: endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography.
An ionic iodinated contrast agent is one that: dissociates into charged particles in solution
Gases commonly used as contrast agents are air and carbon dioxide
A substantial intravenous dose delivered rapidly is called a(n) bolus
The toxicity of contrast on body tissues/ organs is due to:1. the chemical configuration of its molecules.2. its iodine concentration and its osmolality.3. its ionization characteristics.4. the dosage administered and the rate of injection. 1, 2, 3, and 4
The principal laboratory tests used to evaluate renal function prior to the injection of iodinated contrast media are the BUN and: creatinine
Films taken within the first 3 minutes after injection for excretory urography that demonstrate a hazy opacification to the entire kidney structure are referred to as: nephrograms.
A device to drain bile from the hepatic and common bile ducts to the outside of the body following cholecystectomy is called a T-tube.
An intrathecal injection is a direct injection into the: spinal canal
Which examination uses a contrast medium that is injected into the spinal canal by means of a lumbar puncture? myelography.
An examination that uses contrast media to visualize the internal surfaces of the spinal canal to aid in the diagnosis of conditions characterized by deformity or crowding of the spinal canal is called a myelogram.
Which of the following sites is commonly selected for lumbar puncture to instill a contrast agent for myelography? The L3-L4 interspace
A patient who is unable to stand must be assisted from a wheelchair by: use of a hydraulic lift
Biliary calculi may be removed from the common bile duct using a “stone basket” attached to a gastroscope in the procedure called: endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Which of the listed biliary imaging procedures presents high risk to the patient and is usually attempted only when immediate information is needed and more conservative approaches are not practical or have been unsuccessful? Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography (PTC)
When administering contrast for oral cholecystography, which method of contrast is used? Oral tablet or granules
When a contrast medium is described as aqueous, this means that water is the principal solvent for the iodine compound.
Aqueous iodine compounds that are injected into the body are removed from the blood and excreted in urine via the kidneys
To avoid complication when injecting medication through an existing IV line you should: flush the catheter with saline before and after injection of the contrast medium.
Which of the following treatment situations presents the greatest risk to the patient if momentarily disconnected? Closed chest drainage
The purpose of a Swan-Ganz catheter is to: monitor cardiac function
An infant with newborn atelectasis would most likely require radiographs of the chest
Bedside radiography is often preferable to radiography in the diagnostic imaging department when patients are in:1. the PACU.2. isolation.3. orthopedic traction. 1, 2, or 3
A Salem-Sump tube is an example of a(n) nasogastric tube
It is especially important to have suction equipment immediately available for patients who have a new tracheostomy.
The tip of a correctly placed central venous catheter, like the PICC, lies in the: superior vena cava
Which of the following central venous catheters may be used for either short or long-term therapy and introduced through a vein in the antecubital fossa? PICC
Following balloon inflation, the tip of a correctly placed Swan-Ganz catheter lies in the pulmonary artery
A surgical opening made into the trachea with placement of a tube to establish a temporary or permanent airway is a tracheostomy
When taking a radiograph of px with a new tracheostomy, the following precautions must be observed:1. Monitor patient closely for respiratory distress.2. Ensure suction equip is available/ functioning.3 Don’t unfasten ties holding tube in place. 1, 2, and 3
A nasogastric tube may be used to:1. aspirate gas and fluid from the stomach.2. feed the patient.3. perform a radiographic exam of the stomach. 1, 2, and 3
When doing bedside examination of critical neonate in ICU, the radiographer should:1. perform hand hygiene/ don gown before entering the unit.2. remove neonate from the incubator before taking the x-ray.3. x-ray the neonate within the incubator. 1 and 3
To avoid respiratory motion blur when obtaining a bedside radiograph on a patient connected to a mechanical ventilator, the radiographer should: observe the rhythm of the patient’s respirations.
A Port-A-Cath is an example of a: long-term implanted infusion port
Special mattresses used to improve circulation in ICU and CCU patients include:1. alternating pressure mattresses.2. air-filled mattresses.3. the Bair Hugger. 1 and 2 only
Nasoenteric tubes are used for which of the following purposes:1. Decompression2. Instillation of contrast media for radiographic examination3. Feeding 1, 2, and 3
Which of the following are names of typical nasoenteric tubes?1. Miller-Abbott2. Harris3. Dobbhoff 1 and 2 only
Which of the following x-ray examinations may be performed in the ICU and CCU:1. Bronchoscopy using the C-arm fluoroscope2. Central venous catheter placement using the C-arm fluoroscope3. Chest radiographs 1, 2, and 3
The hospital unit that is designed and staffed for close observation and care of patients following operative procedures that require a general anesthetic agent is called the PACU
Steps radiographers should follow before performing bedside x-ray exam:1. Check with nurse to inquire about patient’s condition.2. Confirm the order in the patient’s chart.3. Greet the patient and check the room before bringing in the equipment. 1, 2, and 3
What is the special precaution taken when obtaining a mobile abdomen x-ray on a patient lying on an air mattress? Inflate the mattress to firm up and level the bed before placing the image receptor.
The sterile members of the surgical team include the:1. surgeon.2. scrub nurse.3. anesthesiologist. 1 and 2 only
Scrub clothes are required before entering the _____________to perform a mobile x-ray examination. surgical suite
When mobile x-ray equipment is kept in the surgical suite and is not used elsewhere, the responsibility for the cleanliness of the unit rests with the: radiographer
The area designated as the sterile corridor is the area between the patient drape and the instrument table.
Which of the following radiographic procedures may be performed in surgery?1. T-tube cholangiography2. Localization of fixation devices securing a hip fracture3. Localization of metallic foreign bodies 1, 2, and 3
Before entering the operating room, the radiographer must change into scrub clothes. This special attire includes: nonsterile pants, shirt, mask, cap, and shoe covers.
The nonsterile members of the surgical team include the:1. circulating nurse.2. scrub nurse.3. radiographer. 1 and 3 only
A T-tube cholangiogram is performed in surgery in conjunction with a: laparoscopic cholecystectomy.
An item of surgical furniture that holds a basin of water is called a(n) ring stand
The usual location of the anesthesiologist’s equipment in the operating room is: at the head of the operating table
Which of the following surgical procedures may involve radiographic or fluoroscopic imaging?1. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy2. Ureteral stent placement3. Foreign body localization4. Appendectomy 1, 2, and 3 only
An optical instrument used to visualize the peritoneal cavity during minimally invasive abdominal surgery is called a: laparoscope.

vocab 4

Term Definition
connotation what you think when you see a word
novel a long work of fiction
poetic justice when a character "gets what he/she deserves"
genre a category or type
allegory a story that focuses on life and its moral
haven a place of safety
tendency an action that is habitual
denotation the dictionary meaning of a word
context the surrounding words that explains the meaning of a word
solace comfort
treacherous not to be trusted
catharsis a purifying release of emotions
polytheistic believing in many gods
incur to bring upon oneself
shrewd cunning or clever

patient care first patient care first test

Question Answer
what is the term fee-for-services systems in which insurance companies reimburse the patients for health cost within the limits of the policy.
what is health maintenance organization (HMO) provides services at the primary, secondary, and teritary levels, and promotes wellness by including benefits for regular phyicals and other forms of preventive cares
what is the term managed care systems evolved from the HMOs and are offer by private hospital and physicans
pubic federal goverments hospital facilities department of veterns affair hospital
public state or local goverments hospital facilities university medical centercommunity colleges
privates hospital facilities of propreitary (for profits) often hospital system that use volume-buying as a means to reduce costs
privates hospital facilities of not-for-profits operated by religious or charitable group
what is the term mission statements that declares the philosophy and goals as related to services to its constituents.
insurance programs that promotes health maintenances HMO
goverments insurance programs for low-income person medicaid
hospital supported by goverments funds public hospitals
hospital operated for profits propretary hospital
goverments insurances program for elderly person medicare
first type of insurance program fee-for-services
declarations of a hospitals philosphy and goals regarding the services is mission statements
insuances program operated by private hospital and physicans managed care
a surgeon who specializes in diagnoses and treatments of problems of the musculoskeletal systems is an______________ surgeon orthopedic
the physician who specializes in diagnosis and treatments of disease of the lungs is an pulmonolgist
the board hires the top executive of a hospital, termed the adminstrator
the head of each service area who is qualified professional in area he/she directs is the ____________ or _____________ manager , suprevisor
the group at the top governing position of a typical organizational structure of a hospitial is the boards
licenses physcians working a hopsital for advanced training are _____________- fellows
the physician who specialize in terpretations of diagnostic image is an radiologist
recent medical school graduates gainining practical experiences in a hospital are interns
the physicians specialist, often an internist, who treats patients in the hospital setting is an hospitalist
licensed physcians in an educations programs to become certified in a specialty area are residents
specialized physicians who diagnose using medical images and procedures are radiologists
the radiographer that works with hospital adminstrations and radiologists and supervises serval imaging departments is the radiology manager
the personnel who manage nonmedical aspects of an imaging departs are the support staff
personnel in the radiology departments responsible for performing the imaging exams are ____________ radiographer staff
the radiographer in charge of the daily activities of the imaging departments is the _____________ radiographer chief
the written document that defines the clinical practive, technical activities and professional responsibilities of imaging and therapeutic professionals practice standards
professional educators organizations with an emphasis on collegiated programs acert
professional eduactions organizations for all imaging sciences aerirs
oldest and largetst professional organizations for the radiologic sciences ASRT
_________________ confirm that an individual is qualified in his or her fields credentials
one way to become educated as a radiographer is to earn a certificate in a ________ programs hospitals
the length of educations programs for radiographers varies from a minimum of ____ years to as long as ___ years 2, 5
educationsal options to become a radiographer are to earn as associate's degree at a ___________ or earn a bachelor's degree at a _________ community college, university
radiographers have a professional responsibiity to stay current in the field by earning _____________ credits continuing educations
ARRT requires registered technologist to earn ______ CE credits every 2 years 24
the organizations that accredits hospital is joint commisson
educational programs in imaging are accredited by JRCERT
the job market outlook for imaging professionals is _________ and varies according to fluctuations in the _______________ cyclic, economy
radiographers have diverse _______________ opportunities including clinical mangement, educations and equipments sales and traininig career
the periodic review and inspections of an insitution that is used to confirm the achievement of minimum established standards is accrediations
what is the term empathy means is an attributes of a health care professional that allows one to relate compassioantely to patients without allowing emotions to interfere with the ability to perform duties effectivel
what is the term chronic means stress of dealing with patients needs, illness, or other personal problems
anxiety, withdrawl, and apathy are symptoms and signs of burnouts
one way to prevent burnout is to practice self-cares
an attribute of a health care professional that allows one to relate compassionately to pateients without allowing emotions to interfere with the ability to perform duties effectively is empathy
good nutrition, exercise, and stress-relieving activites are habits associated to quality self-care
a practice that prevents burnout in health care professional self-cares
a conditions to which health care works are particulary susceptible, especially if they fail to take care of themselves burnout
principle 9 requires protections of patients privacy by maintaining confidentiality
principle 10 of the code of ethics requires RTs to continually strive to improves _____________ and skills knowledges
principle 3 requires RTs to deliver patients care without any form of discrimations
principle 6 desgnates that RTs must be aware of an operate within their desgnated scope of practice
a practice that prevents burnout in health care professional self-care
a quality of health care works that allows them to relate to a patients emotional state while still performing their jobs empathy
a condition to which health care works are particulary susceptible, espically if they fail to take care of themselves burnout
which law protects patients right to confidentiality HIPAA
what are the six basic right of patients according to the american hospital associations documents 1)high quality hospital care a clean and safe2)involvement in your care3)protections of your privacy4)help when leaving the hospital5) help with your billing claim
does a patient have a right to copies of their imaging procedures yes
what is the title of the document by the american hospital association that summarize the right of patients the patients care partnership
what is HIPPA law that protects patients confidentiality
what is DNI stand for do not intubate
what is an another term for an advanced directive living will
failure to provide a reasonable standard of care that results in harm to another negilgences
verbal statements intended to harm a person's reputations slander
written statements intended to harms a person's reputations libel
the unlawful use of force against another battery
a civil wrong; law under which lawsuits are filied tort
a serious crime; penalty is serves felony
the intentional unustified, nonconsensual detention of confinements of a person false imprisonments
the threat of touching in an inqurious way assults
a lesser criminal offse; penalty is a fine or imprionsments>1 years misdemeanors
person who files a lawsuits plaintiff
an error in patients history recorded in the radiology informations system only affects your exam false, any efferor affects the care of the patients in all areas of the hospital and could results in legal complications
is it okay to give another technologist your computer passwords to log in patients history to help when you are busy false, you should protect your login ID and passwords to prevents unauthorized access
radiographer are responsible for charting informations regarding pertent patients informations are related to an imaging procedure true
the radiology computer system should never be used for personal reason true
the patients is confused. is an accuate, objective statements for a chart false, this statemetns is more subjective that objective because it lacks the observations or actions that lead you to this confusion
an ____________________- attitude and demeanor can improve patients rapport and lessen the likehood of lawsuits courteous
in the 7Cs of malpractice preventions ______________ completely, consistently and objectively can be the best defense against a malpractice claim charting
an __________________ or __________________ occurences form is the formal documentations process for reporting accidents that involve patients, visitors, other health care employee and yourselfs incidents report, usual
patients injuries and resulting malpractice cases can be avoided by improving _________ among health care professional communications
in the 7Cs of malpractice preventions _____________ is knowing and adhering to professional standards and maintaining professional competences to reduce liability exposure comptences
protecting the ______________ of medical informations is a legal and ethical responsbility of health professional, and it is a method of malpractice preventions confidentiality
which groups that have a uniques cultures sisters
what is the cultures that considers direct eye contact as rude russian, anglo americans
in _____________________ communication situations the use of a lower and slower tone of voice is best stressful
using good listening and feedback skills help to __________________ communications validates
an calm, firm expression of opinions and feelings to defines assertiveness
the combinations of tone, volume, and words choice and nonverbal cues conveys ______________to others attitudes
an expression of anger an dhosttility communications defines aggressions
may be verbal or nonverbal, depending on the situtations response
communications skills that involve tone, volume, and enunications verbal
requires both verbal and nonverbal skills to convey understanding and mirror the speaker's emotions reflecting
cues that include gesture, eye contact, and touch nonverbal
communications empathy and clarifies instructions for positioning touch
verbally expressing the main idea of the message back to the communicator restatings
involves good grooming and clean uniforms appearances
would you describe your symptoms more fully?' explorings
"my name is robert, and i will be your radiographer today" giving informations
increase clients willingness to talk using silences
"your appear to be in pain." making observations
"i understands" accepting
"good morning, mr. jones" giving recognitions
brandon's first patients is mr. krone in the ER, who twisted his ankle. when brandon walks into the room to introduce himself, mr. knoe smile politely and points to both ears, while shaking his heads. brandon understand that mr. knoe is deaf
brandon knows that to get an accuate history from mr. krone, he must attain the assistance of a certifeid interpreter
when the interpeter arrives, brandon remebers that courtesy dictates that he ________ directly to mr. krone rather than to the interpretor speaks
while mr. krone is signing to the interpreter, brandon is careful to watch mr. krone to pick up on his __________- cues nonverbal
what is the appropriate communications with person who do not speak english use family member as
the tips to improve communications with person who are hard of hearing speak in higher pitch as well as
the inability to comprehend spoken or written language is termed aphasia true
aspasia is the results of the loss of the vocal cords false
baby talk is best use to build rapport with clients who have impaired mental functions false
an unconscious patients should be spoken to as if he or she could respond true
professional and appropriate touch is a useful cue when working with patients who have vision loss or impariments true
claire pinches her noses when she wants mrs. jones to hold her breath
mr jones raises her hands when she needs claire's ________________ or ________________ attention, assistances
mr jones has a paper and pen to ___________down questions for claire write
when claire needs mrs. jones to drink the barium she brings her hands to her ______________ and pantomies drinking mouth
to signal mrs. jones to stop drinking, claire holds up her hands with palm facing out in the classic ____________ or ___________sign halt, stop
to convey meaning and reasure mrs. jones, claire must use good nonverbal skills, such as ________________ and _____________ facial expression , eye contact
when nonverbal cues can be used to lessen the intimadiations when communicating with toddlers and preschool -aged children squatting down or sitting to gets to the child's eye level will lessen intimidations
using honesty, appropriate descriptionm, and demonstrations will help obtain the cooperations of which age groups school-age childresn
to which cues are babies most responsive soothing tone of voice and a smile
discrimation towards the elderly ageism
pay attention to protect this with adolescent and teens modesty
how older adults may feel when adressed with a pet name offended
you'll lose credibility if you use this tone with grade school-aged childresn baby talk
care that is used only to provide sympton relife and comfort, rather than a cure, is ______________ palliative
in patient teaching for preprocedual preparations __________ instructions are useful writtens
in longer imaging procedures, it is necessary to communicate with the patient's _______________ to ease their anxiety family
in patients teaching situation, _____________ that the patients understands by using open-ended question and having the patients ______ the preparations back to you validate, explain
the stage of grief characterized by withdrawl and acquiescence and when the person may cry easily is_______________ depression
the stage of grief when the person deals with life and relationships on a more realistic, day to day basis is acceptances
one of the smallest microorganism know to cause disease, such as the common colds virus
rod-shaped bacteria bacilli
small, atypical type bacterial rickettsiae
disease cause by rod shaped bacteriatuberculosis
a fully developed virus particle virion
spiral shaped bacterial spirochete
disease-causing microorganisms pathogens
living organism too small to be seen with human eyes microorganism
spherical shaped bacterial cocci
a destruction-resistans form of bacterial endospore
what is the definitions of bacteria three general forms occi, bacilli and spirochetes
what is the definitions of prions very small proteins that convert normal proteins in the central nervous system into abnormal proteins
what is the definitions of viruses can only live within a cells and contains their own genetic material
what is the definitions of fungi macroscopic and microscopic form requiire and external carbon sources
what is the definition of protozoa complex single-cellular animal
characteristics of certain microorganism that cause them to be pathogenic and distinguish them from normal flora virulence factors
any environments in which the pathogen can flourish and reproduces to create sufficent number to become hazardous reserviors of infections
the most common reservoirs human body
any route through which pathogen containing blood, body fluid, excretions or secrtions leave the body portal of exits
humans that harbor pathogens but demonstrate no adverse effects carriers
the _________ in this case is pseudomonas bacteria infectious agents
the ________________ of pathogen growth is the water in the flower vase reservoir
the _____________ is air droplets mode of transmissions
mr. pearson's respiratory systems is the __________________ for the pathogens entry portals
the ________________ is mr. pearson , since he is already compromised after surgery susceptible host
by changing the water in the flower vase, mrs. pearson accidentally provided an ______________ for the infectious agents exit portals
long term form attained via vaccinations or exposure acquired immunity
short-term form obtain in utero or via breastfeeding passive immunity
the method by which inflammations fights infections phagocytosis
mechanical and chemical barrier of the body natural resistances
another term for acquired immunity active immunity
transmitted via fercal-oral route; illness is mild, and full recovery is common HAV
only occurs concomitanity with HBV HDV
transmitted via blood; disease often silent until extesive live damage has occured HCV
transmitted via blood and other bodily fluids; cause serious disease HBV
trasmitted via contaminated food or water; not common in us HEV
according to standards precautions a _________ is required to protect the nose from airbone or droplet transmission of disease mask
OSHA's standard on bloodborne precautioins requires employers to provide health care works _________ hepatitis B vacines
according to standards precautions used needles should never be ____________ , but instead are disposed of in the proper ___________ recapped, sharps containers
a system of protective measure that, when used properly greatly reduce the risk of disease transmission is ___________ standards precautions
destructions of infectious pathogens by means of a chemical solutions is _____________ disinfections
the process of reducing the number of infectious pathogens is termed medical asepsis
__________________ containers are used to dispose of items containminated with blood and other bodily fluids biohazards
one of the most important and basic medial aseptic techniques is hands hygiene
when performing hand hygiene,e the durations of hand lathering is ___________ seconds 10-15
countertops and other works areas should be cleaned at least__________ daily twice

Ch.7 Vocab

Term Definition
Crust The thin and solid outermost layer of the Earth above the mantle.
Mantle The layer of rock between the Earth's crust and core.
Core The central part of the Earth below the mantle.
Lithosphere The solid outer layer of the Earth that consists of the crust and the rigid upper part of the mantle.
Asthenosphere The soft layer of the mantle on which the tectonic plates move.
Mesosphere The strong, lower part of the mantle between the asthenosphere and the outer core.
Tentonic Plate A block of lithosphere that consists of the crust and the rigid, outermost part of the mantle.
Continental Drift The gradual movement of the continents across the earth's surface through geological time.
Sea – Floor Spreading The formation of new areas of oceanic crust, which occurs through the upwelling of magma at midocean ridges and its subsequent outward movement on either side.
Plate Tectonics
Convergent Boundary
Divergent Boundary
Transform Boundary
Compression
Tension
Folding
Fault
Uplift
Subsidence

Med Assist The Medical Assistant

Question Answer
What job/occupation does the folllowing definition define; an integral memeber of the health care team, qualified to work in the administrative area, exam room and laboratory Medical Assistant
To be successful as a medical assistant you need the following attributes Knowledge of theory (book knowledge), skills (procedures) and professional behaviors
This is a professional organization for medical assistants.In 1955 the purpose of this organization was to raise the standards of the Med Assist to a professional level AAMA American Association of Medical Assistants
A process by which an educational institution or program establishes credibility or legitimacy by complying with predetermined standards. CAAHEP and ABHES are such organizations Accreditation
This organization was founded in 1939 and is a certification and membership society for several allied helath professionals AMT American Medical Technologists
What are three tools you can use to help manage your time Daily list of tasks, Learn to say no if your plate is full, Don't be a perfectionist for non important tasks, Don't do bad habits (surf internet)
This trait is the abulity to put yourself in anothers shoes; think about what is best for the patient Empathy
This trait is the ability to adjust or make fit. Your willingness to be flexible adaptable
This trait is being polite and well mannered Courteous
This trait is being prudent and conscious. Never give out any information regarding a patient confidential
This trait is being reliable and responsible. Coworkers trust you will show up and do what you say you will do dependable
This trait means you will be trustworthy and truthful honesty
This trait shows ambition, do things that need to be done without someone telling you to do so iniiative
This trait is to act calm when things do not go as planned patience
Show regard for others even if you disagree with their message or ideals Respect
This trait is the ability to perceive a situation and know the right thing to say or do tact
This trait is having an unselfish concern for the welfare of others altruism
What does it means when Med Assistants work as generalists The perform both clinical and administrative duties in addition to general responsibilities
Name 5 administratvie skills schedule appointments, perform admissions, create a medical record, file medical records, procedural coding, billing, collection, bookeeping,produce insurance forms
Name 5 clinical skills apply principles of aseptic technique, perform vital signs, sterilization of instruments, minor surgery procedures, collect specimens, perform lab tests, perform EKG, administer medications, phlebotomy, perform patient screenings, exams.
Name 5 general skills Good communication techniques, knowledge of legal and ethical concepts, patient education, operations of the office/clinic
What characteristic is at the core of medical assisting (video) compassion
What credential do Med Assist receive upon passing examination of the AAMA CMA (certified medical assistant)
What credential do Med Assist receive upon passing examination of the Accrediting Bureau of Health Education RMA (Registered Medical Assistant)
Showing restraint in our emotions and response to others is : Self control
Showing zeal; intense interest Enthusiasm

Human communication chapter 6-8

Question Answer
provisions of relationships what relationships offer or provide us
relationships linking partners through a sense of security attachments
relationships linking partners through a sense of alliance affiliations
communication between people in relationships interpersonal communication
Having someone there for you,Belonging and a sense of reliable alliance
(advice or information guidance
a sense of belonging to a group of friends), social integration
(providing assistance to others) opportunity for nurturance
two people communicating interpersonally dyad
the enjoyment or pleasure people derive from their relationships relational satisfaction
a deliberate and masked way of expressing disrespect passive aggressiveness
ntentional revelation of information about oneself self-disclosure
the expectation that revelation about oneself will produce responses of similar information norm of reciprocity
self-disclosure Intentional revelation of information about oneself
affective conflict when people acknowledge an incompatibility of emotions and feelings
an expressed struggle between at least two interdependent parties who perceive incompatible goals, scare rewards and interference from the other party conflict
when people acknowledge differences in their deeply held feelings about the worth or importance of significant aspects of their lives value conflict
when people acknowledge incompatibility in their perceptions about something of importance cognitive conflict
when people acknowledge incompatibility in the individual outcomes they hold for a given plan or action goal conflict
when there is a problem, but the differences are not so great that one or both sides want to act on them latent conflict
-Relationships move from the initial interaction to greater stability (The onion theory). Social Penetration Theory
-Relationships go from non-intimate to intimate.-Progress is systematic and predictable.-Relationships development includes dissolution and penetration.-Self-Disclosure is at the heart of relational development. Social Penetration Theory: Assumption
Orientation Interaction between people who do not know one another. There is little sharing of personal information, and communication is based on social convention. Conversations are scripted and superficial.
Communication is characterized by a good deal of self-disclosure. There is increased self-disclosure. Breadth and depth of topics increase. Affective Exchange
Communication here is more open and comfortable, less scripted. The shared information goes beyond the norm-approved small talk of the previous stage, but still remains at the periphery. Exploratory Affective Exchange
You and your partner can and do talk about everything. Communication here is rich, open, and free across all the onion’s levels. Stable Exchange
based on the fear that your partner will inflict punishment (emotional or physical)"I'm worried you'll punish me" Coercive Power

Quiz 4

Question Answer
What is orthodoxy? Correct thinking
What is gnosticism? 114 various sayings (Jesus) Humans are divine souls trapped in the ordinary physical (or material) world. They say that the world was made by an imperfect spirit. The imperfect spirit is thought to be the same as the God of Abraham. Predates Christianity.
What is the Gospel of Thomas? Heretical (believe in something wrong) condemned gospel, has hints of gnosticism, Mary can't go to heaven unless she is man, Jesus came from a God of light, was found in Egypt in 1945
What is Irenaeus, Against Heresies? Condemns heretical beliefs, pure dualism and gnosticism, Jesus was representative of the Light, Jesus came down to stray us from the material world, occurring 1-325, is in Gaul (France)
What is Homilies of Clement? Set of discourses composed supposedly by Clement, but in reality by an unknown author. There are two laws: Mosaic and Jesus, Just follow a law, Condemns the idea of Jesus as a Messiah, What Christians are supposed to do in salvation
What is Eusebius of Caesarea? Writing a history of the Church, Talking about Catholicism and the New Testament, Letting in the Tetrad, Questions the Book of Revelations, but will allow it in the New Testament, He lets Revelations into the New Testament if it seems desirable
What is the Creed of Nicaea? Direct shot as gnosticism (there are no two Gods), Arius was a Priest from Egypt that came to Nicaean cnl, Orthodox belief of God at Nicea, there is one God, Creation of a trinity that cannot be logically explained. Does not quote scripture, but has truth
What is Saint Matthew? Gentiles are non-Jews, somewhat truthful, shows Jesus as a teacher not a miracle worker, is telling Christians how to act, not dismantling Judaic scripture, laws and prophets will stand, cursing brother is liable for judgment, love thy enemy, cut hand off
What is Saint Paul? Jew who converted to Christianity when going to persecute Christians, anyone can be saved who confesses with lips that Jesus is savior, man is not justified by law but saved by faith, we aren't perfect, more user-friendly, some rejected in 1st 3 centuries
What is the Surah 1? The opening of the Qur'an, God is to be compassionate and caring, we turn to God in the time of need
Who was Mohammed? The prophet after Abraham, Moses, and Jesus. He is being told by Gabriel to recite the passages that he is being told. Leaves Mecca for Yathrib, where he is very successful for his final ten years.
What are the difference between Muslim Meccan and Medinan revelations? Meccan are nice and short, while Medinan are longer and more serious
What is the Surah 2? Abraham tells God that he and his sons have already submitted, Make no distinction between Jews and Christians, Gods and prophets, To Muslims, Muhammad is not a saint, he is a normal person
What is the Quran? Revelation, and is revealed in small pieces over time, and took place over 23 years. Used in prayer and ritual.
What are Hadiths? Meaning tradition, sayings and records of things that Muhammed did. Many battles within Islam over which are true and to follow. They are not used in worship, but do give an insight to more information not found in the Quran.
What are the Gardens of the Righteous? Collected by Nawawi, he used info in the Six Authentic Compilations, and lesser hadiths to create information for various quotes in the Quran. If you want to stay on a straight arrow, hang out with pious people, Allah says women are going to hell
What must you accept of the Quran? All or nothing
What is the Ka'Ba? Box in Mecca, holiest site in Islam, Muslims must visit on their Hajj

night, by Elie Wiese

Term Definition
rhetoric the art of persuation
syntax sentence structure
diction word choice
connotation the emotional meaning of a word
denotation the literal meaning of a word
tone the feeling the author has about the subject
purpose why the author wrothe this
parellelism when two parts of a sentence match grammaticly
verbal irony Sarcasm, or meaning the oppisite of what you say
dramtic irony Suspence, or when the reader knows what will happen but a charcter does not
situational irony Suprise, or what occurs is the oppisite of what was expected
reprieve the cancellation or postponment of punishment
emaciated made extremely thin and weak
execute to carry out or accomplish
decisive final or concluding
din loud noise

Vocab Pgs 26, 27, 28

Question Answer
Abhorrent (Followed by to) in conflict; utterly opposed; loathsome; repugnant; odious; abominable
Please do not ask me to tell an untruth; lying is _____. abhorrent
Admonish Reprocessing gently but seriously; warn; of fault; caution
The teacher condemned me on my improvement on my writing, by ___ me for my tardy. Adomnish
Ambrosial Exterior pleasing to taste or smell; delicious; like ambrosia; heavenly
Tats this rule pineapple; it has a _____ flavor. Ambrosial
Confine Shut up; imprison; keep narrow, cramped quarters
On July 14, 1789, a Paris mob freed the prisoners ____ in Bastille. Confine
Decade A period of 10 years
A _____ is equivalent to 10 years. Decade
Detonate Explode with suddenness and violence; cause (something) to explode
Fallout showed that a nuclear device had probably been ____. Detonated
Ephemeral Lasting one day only; fleeting; transitory; short- lived; transient
Day-lily blossoms are ____; that lay only for a day. Ephemeral
Gullible Easily deceived or cheated; credulous
The worthless stock was a bid up by the ___, spurned by the astute. Gullible
Haggle Dispute or argue over a price in a petty way; bargain; wrangle
Have they agreed in a price yet, or are they still ____? Haggling
Immerse 1. Plunge or place liquid; dip; duck2. Engross; absorb
I filled a basin with lukewarm water and ___ my foot into it Immersed
She is ___ in her book. Inmersd
Insomnia Inability to sleep; abnormal wakefulness; sleeplessness
The forever hostages now get abnormal amount of sleep; their confinement plagued them with ____. Insomnia
Lapse 1. Slip; error; accidental mistake; trivial fault
I wrote your name with one t, instead of 2. Plead forgive the ___. Lapse
Probe Critical inquiry to suspected illegal activity; investigation
A ___ is being conducted to learn what happened to the missing funds. Probe
Render Hand down officially; deliver (as a verdict); give
Tension was high in the courtroom as the jury filed to ___ the verdict. Render
Repast Bring back to condition of being full; refill
Every 300 miles we stopped at a service station to ___ the gas tank. Replenish
Score Group ur set of twenty; twenty
We have nineteen signatures already, and if we get one more we,lol have a ____. Score
Snub Act or instance of snubbing (treating with contempt); rebuff; slight; insult
Why did Sharon invite everyone but me? Was is just an oversight or a deliberate ____? Snub
Suture Strand or river used to see parts of the living body; also, stitch made with such material
A few days later the but finger was sewn together, the patient returned for the removal of ____. Suture
Unwittingly Unintentionally; by accident; inadvertently; unknowingly
I ____ opened a letter addressed to you. I'm sorry. Unwittingly